Question 1: Describe the Hierarchical Network Model? Describe the benefits of the Hierarchical Network Model.
Question 2: Explain the key features of switches that are used in hierarchical networks?
Question 3: What are the benefits of VLAN? Explain different types of VLAN.
Q4. A point-to-point connection with different vendor routers using HDLC as the Encapsulation type cannot establish a connection. When you change the encapsulation type on both routers to PPP, the connection is established. Why did the routers establish a connection with PPP and not with HDLC?
Q5: What are the downsides to password recovery?
Question 1(a): Describe the benefits and purpose of VTP
Question 1(b): Explain the purpose and operation of ACLs? Explain the filtering process?
Question 2: Describe and compare the Ethernet concepts and techniques used by LAN switches.
Question 3a): The router IOS images should be stored on a TFTP server on the network. A network TFTP server can be used to restore lost or corrupted IOS images to network devices. In your own words, answer the following questions about IOS image management. What information is required when using the copy command to upload or download a system image file?
Question 3b): What happens to a router when the IOS is deleted from flash?
Q 4 Refer to Figure 1 for all the questions in this command exercise.
Q.I Allow only Host A from the 172.16.1.0/27 subnet access to the E-Mail server. Use the last usable number in the extended list range. Host A should not have access to any of the other servers. Write all the commands
Q.II Allow only Host B access to the Internet, and deny everyone else. Use an extended named ACL to accomplish this task, and name the ACL Internet. Write all the commands
Q.III No one from the 172.16.1.0/27 subnet is allowed access to the File Server, but all other traffic should be permitted. Use an extended named ACL to accomplish this task, and name the ACL No Access. Write all the commands
Q.IV Allow only hosts on the R3 LAN to communicate with hosts on the R1 LAN. They are allowed access to the Internet, but deny them access to the servers on the R2 LAN. Use the first usable number in the extended IP range to accomplish this task. Write all the commands
1. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?
A. access layer
B. core layer
C. data-link layer
D. distribution layer
2. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?
B. redundant links
C. link aggregation
D. network diameter
3. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?
4. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?
A. Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.
B. The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.
C. A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.
D. QoS issues are greatly reduced.
E. There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams.
5. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
6. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
7. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?
D. access lists
8. At which hierarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?
A. core layer
B. distribution layer
C. access layer
D. entry layer
9. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?
A. Power over Ethernet
B. quality of service
C. switch port security
D. inter-VLAN routing
10 Link aggregations should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?
A. core only
B. distribution and core
C. access and distribution
D. access, distribution, and core
11. What statement best describes a modular switch?
A. a slim-line chassis
B. allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane
C. defined physical characteristics
D. flexible characteristics
12. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?
13. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?
A. converts clear text data before transmission
B. indicates which channel the data should flow on
C. determines that the correct host is utilizing the network
D. allows the host to choose which channel to use
14 If a network administrator enters these commands on a switch, what will be the result? Switch l(config-line)# line console 0 Switchl(config-line)# password cisco Switch l(config-line)# login
A. to secure the console port with the password “cisco”
B. to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available
C. to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password
D. to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access
15 Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
A. user EXEC mode
B. privileged EXEC mode
C. global configuration mode
D. interface configuration mode
16 What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
A. The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
B. Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
C. A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.
D. The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.
17 A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?
A. append ? to the last parameter
B. append a space and then ? to the last parameter
C. use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list
D. use the Tab key to show which options are available
18 When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
A. The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
B. The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
C. The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
D. The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.
19 Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a switch?
A. The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
B. The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
C. The command will generate the error message Ambiguous command: “banner motd” “to be displayed.
D. The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after thecommand is entered into the switch.
20. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
A. The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
B. The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
C. The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
D. The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
21. Where is the startup configuration stored?
22 Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
A. VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
B. VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
C. VTP allows a switch to be configured to belong to more than one VTP domain.
D. VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.
23 A network administrator is replacing a failed switch with a switch that was previously on the network. What precautionary step should the administrator take on the replacement switch to avoid incorrect VLAN information from propagating through the network?
A. Enable VTP pruning.
B. Change the VTP domain name.
C. Change the VTP mode to client.
D. Change all the interfaces on the switch to access ports.
24 What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
A. It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
B. It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
C. It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
D. It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
E. It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.
25 What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
A. A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
B. A port on the switch has been shutdown.
C. The switch is changed to the transparent mode.
D. A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
26. How are VTP messages sent between switches in a domain?
A. Layer 2 broadcast
B. Layer 2 multicast
C. Layer 2 unicast
D. Layer 3 broadcast
E. Layer 3 multicast
F. Layer 3 unicast
27. What statement describes the default propagation of VLANs on a trunked link?
A. only the native VLAN
B. VLANs 1 to 1005
C. only VLAN 1
D. all VLANs
E. no VLANs
28 Switch port faO/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch portFaO/1?
A. Disable DTP.
B. Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port FaO/1.
C. Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.
D. Enter the switch port mode access command in interface configuration mode.
29 What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?
A. Configuring inters witch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs.
B. A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.
C. Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage.
D. Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.
30. What statement about the 802. lq trunking protocol is true?
A. 802. lq is Cisco proprietary.
B. 802. lq frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
C. 802. lq does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.
D. 802. lq will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.
31. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?
B. token passing
32. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
A. VLAN 1 can never be deleted.
B. VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.
C. VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
D. VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its
33. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
A. The ports cannot communicate with other ports.
B. The ports default back to the management VLAN.
C. The ports automatically become a part of VLAN 1.
D. The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.
34. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in “dynamic desirable” mode?
A. dynamic desirable mode
B. on or dynamic desirable mode
C. on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
D. on, auto, dynamic desirable, or no negotiate mode
35. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port faO/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
A. Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
B. Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
C. Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 commands in interface configuration
D. Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.
36 Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
A. STP and RSTP have the same BPDU format and flag field information.
B. STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
C. STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
D. STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state.
RSTP places designated ports into forwarding state immediately.
RSTP places designated ports into forwarding state immediately
37 How can a network administrator influence which STP switches become the root bridge?
A. Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
B. Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
C. Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
D. Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
38 In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
39 When PVST+ was developed; the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
A. bridge priority
B. MAC address
40 What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning treetopology?
A. election of the root bridge
B. blocking of the non-designated ports
C. selection of the designated trunk port
D. determination of the designated port for each segment